CLINICAL ESSENTIALS
Ethical and Social Issues
1. An 81-year-old woman recently became ill and is now dying of metastatic cancer. She wishes to have her life preserved at all costs. Her physician is concerned that such an effort would be medically futile and extremely costly. Until recently, the patient had an active social life, which included regular participation in many church activities. Her closest relatives are two nieces, whom she does not know well.
At this time, it would be most appropriate for which of the following groups to become involved in decisions about this patient?
A. Social workers
B. The patient’s family
C. Clergy
D. Ethics committee
E. Risk management personnel
Key Concept/Objective: To understand that the patient’s beliefs and support systems can often guide health care providers in engaging others in support of the patient
The patient’s active involvement in church activities may mean that she will be receptive to the involvement of clergy. Communication regarding prolongation of suffering by aggressive measures to preserve life at all costs and discussion of spiritual dimensions may help this patient resolve the issue. Although courts have generally upheld the wishes of individuals regardless of issues involving the utilization of resources, the appropriate use of resources continues to be a legitimate and difficult problem. (Answer: C—Clergy)
2. An 80-year-old woman presents with severe acute abdominal pain. She is found to have bowel ischemia, severe metabolic acidosis, and renal failure. She has Alzheimer disease and lives in a nursing home. Surgical consultation is obtained, and the surgeon feels strongly that she would not survive surgery.
When you approach the patient’s family at this time, what would be the best way to begin the discussion?
A. Explain that DNR status is indicated because of medical futility
B. Find out exactly what the family members know about the patient’s wishes
C. Explain that the patient could have surgery if the family wishes but that the patient would probably not survive
D. Discuss the patient’s religious beliefs
E. Explain to the family that the patient is dying and tell them that you will make sure she is not in pain
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the duties of the physician regarding the offering of choices to patients and families in urgent situations when the patient is dying
Although the issues underlying each of these choices might be fruitfully discussed with the family, ethicists have affirmed the duty of physicians to lead and guide such discussions on the basis of their knowledge and experience. Health care providers should not inflict unrealistic choices on grieving families; rather, they should reassure them and describe the efficacy of aggressive palliative care in relieving the suffering of patients who are dying. In this case, a direct approach involving empathy and reassurance would spare the family of having to make difficult decisions when there is no realistic chance of changing the outcome. (Answer: E—Explain to the family that the patient is dying and tell them that you will make sure she is not in pain)
3. An 86-year-old man with Alzheimer disease is admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. The patient has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; coronary artery disease, which developed after he underwent four-vessel coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) 10 years ago; and New York Heart Association class 3 congestive heart failure. His living will, created at the time of his CABG, calls for full efforts to resuscitate him if necessary. A family meeting is scheduled for the next morning. At 2 A.M., a nurse discovers that the patient is blue in color and has no pulse; the nurse initiates CPR and alerts you regarding the need for emergent resuscitation. An electrocardiogram shows no electrical activity.
What should you do at this time?
A. Proceed with resuscitation because of the patient’s living will
B. Proceed with resuscitation until permission to stop resuscitation is obtained from the family
C. Decline to proceed with resuscitation on the basis of medical futility
D. Continue resuscitation for 30 minutes because the nurse initiated CPR
E. Decline to proceed with resuscitation because the patient’s previous living will is void, owing to the fact that it was not updated at the time of admission
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the concept of medical futility as the rationale for not performing CPR
It would be medically futile to continue CPR and attempts at resuscitation, given the absence of ECG activity. In this case, the patient’s likelihood of being successfully resuscitated is less than 1%, owing to his multiple medical conditions. (Answer: C—Decline to proceed with resuscitation on the basis of medical futility)
For more information, see Cassel CK, Purtilo RB, McParland ET: Clinical Essentials: II Contemporary Ethical and Social Issues in Medicine. ACP Medicine Online (www. acpmedicine.com). Dale DC, Federman DD, Eds. WebMD Inc., New York, July 2001
Reducing Risk of Injury and Disease
4. A 26-year-old woman presents to clinic for routine examination. The patient has no significant medical history and takes oral contraceptives. She smokes half a pack of cigarettes a day and reports having had three male sexual partners over her lifetime. As part of the clinic visit, you wish to counsel the patient on reducing the risk of injury and disease.
Of the following, which is the leading cause of loss of potential years of life before age 65?
A. HIV/AIDS
B. Motor vehicle accidents
C. Tobacco use
D. Domestic violence
Key Concept/Objective: To understand that motor vehicle accidents are the leading cause of loss of potential years of life before age 65
Motor vehicle accidents are the leading cause of loss of potential years of life before age 65. Alcohol-related accidents account for 44% of all motor vehicle deaths. One can experience a motor vehicle accident as an occupant, as a pedestrian, or as a bicycle or motorcycle rider. In 1994, 33,861 people died of injuries sustained in motor vehicle accidents in the United States. The two greatest risk factors for death while one is driving a motor vehicle are driving while intoxicated and failing to use a seat belt. The physician’s role is to iden tify patients with alcoholism, to inquire about seat-belt use, and to counsel people to use seat belts and child car seats routinely. In one study, 53.5% of patients in a university internal medicine practice did not use seat belts. Problem drinking, physical inactivity, obesi ty, and low income were indicators of nonuse. The prevalence of nonuse was 91% in people with all four indicators and only 25% in those with no indicators. Seat belts confer considerable protection, yet in one survey, only 3.9% of university clinic patients reported that a physician had counseled them about using seat belts. Three-point restraints reduce the risk of death or serious injury by 45%. Air bags reduce the risk of death by an additional 9% in drivers using seat belts. Because air bags reduce the risk of death by only 20% in unbelted drivers, physicians must tell their patients not to rely on air bags. (Answer: B— Motor vehicle accidents)
For more information, see Sox HC Jr.: Clinical Essentials: III Reducing Risk of Injury and Disease. ACP Medicine Online (www.acpmedicine.com). Dale DC, Federman DD, Eds. WebMD Inc., New York, July 2003
Diet and Exercise
5. A 78-year-old woman with hypertension presents for a 3-month follow-up visit for her hypertension. A year ago, she moved to a retirement community, where she began to eat meals more regularly; during the past year, she has gained 15 lb. She is sedentary. She weighs 174 lb, and her height is 5 ft 1 in. She is a lifelong smoker; she smokes one pack of cigarettes a day and has repeatedly refused to receive counseling regarding smoking cessation. She has occasional stiffness on waking in the morning. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. She reports taking the prescribed antihypertensive therapy almost every day. She is concerned about her weight gain because this is the most she has ever weighed. She has reported that she has stopped eating desserts at most meals and is aware that she needs to reduce the amount of fat she eats. She has never exercised regularly, but her daughter has told her to ask about an aerobic exercise program. She has asked for exercise recommendations, although she does not know whether it will make much difference.
Which of the following would you recommend for this patient?
A. Attendance at a structured aerobic exercise program at least three times a week
B. Membership in the neighborhood YMCA for swimming
C. Walking three times a week, preferably with a partner
D. Contacting a personal trainer to develop an individualized exercise program
E. No additional exercise because she has symptoms of osteoarthritis
Key Concept/Objective: To recognize that even modest levels of physical activity such as walking and gardening are protective even if they are not started until midlife to late in life
Changes attributed to aging closely resemble those that result from inactivity. In sedentary patients, cardiac output, red cell mass, glucose tolerance, and muscle mass decrease. Systolic blood pressure, serum cholesterol levels, and body fat increase. Regular exercise appears to retard these age-related changes. In elderly individuals, physical activity is also associated with increased functional status and decreased mortality. Although more studies are needed to clarify the effects of exercise in the elderly, enough evidence exists to warrant a recommendation of mild exercise for this patient, along with counseling concerning the benefits of exercise at her age. Walking programs increase aerobic capacity in individuals in their 70s with few injuries. Although structured exercise is most often recommended by physicians, recent studies demonstrate that even modest levels of physical activity such as walking and gardening are beneficial. Such exercise is protective even if it is not started until midlife or late in life. Because this patient is used to a sedentary lifestyle and is not strongly motivated to begin exercising, compliance with exercise recommendations may be an issue. Lifestyle interventions appear to be as effective as formal exercise programs of similar intensity in improving cardiopulmonary fitness, blood pressure, and body composition. Exercise does not appear to cause or accelerate osteoarthritis. However, counseling concerning warm-ups, stretches, and a graded increase in exercise intensity can help prevent musculoskeletal problems as a side effect of exercise. (Answer: C—Walking three times a week, preferably with a partner)
6. A 50-year-old woman presents for a follow-up visit to discuss the laboratory results from her annual physical examination and a treatment plan. Her total serum cholesterol level is 260 mg/dl, which is up from 200 mg/dl the previous year. Her blood pressure is 140/100 mm Hg, which is up from 135/90 mm Hg; she weighs 165 lb, a gain of 12 lb from the previous year. Results from other tests and her physical examination are normal. Her height is 5 ft 3 in. She is postmenopausal and has been receiving hormonal replacement therapy for 2 years. You discuss her increased lipid levels and increased blood pressure in the context of her weight gain and dietary habits. When asked about her dietary habits, she says that she has heard that putting salt on food causes high blood pressure. She asks if she should stop putting salt on her food because her blood pressure is high.
How would you describe for this patient the relationship between sodium and hypertension?
A. Tell her that reducing sodium intake usually leads to significant reductions in blood pressure
B. Tell her that reducing intake of sodium and fats while increasing intake of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains usually leads to significant reductions in hypertension
C. Explain to her that decreasing sodium is only important in elderly patients
D. Tell her that research studies are unclear about the role of sodium in hypertension
E. Explain to her that antihypertensive medication is effective in reducing hypertension, making sodium reduction unnecessary
Key Concept/Objective: To understand current evidence that supports the relationship between sodium and hypertension
The Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) trial1 demonstrated that the combination of eating fruits, vegetables, and whole grains along with reducing fat and sodium levels can lower systolic blood pressure an average of 11.5 mm Hg in patients with hypertension. Reductions in dietary sodium can contribute to substantial reductions in the risk of stroke and coronary artery disease. In addition, for this patient, a reduction in sodium intake will decrease urinary calcium excretion and thus reduce her risk of osteoporosis. Because the patient has asked about putting salt on food, she should also be counseled that 80% of dietary sodium comes from processed food. It is important to review these hidden sources of salt with patients who would benefit from sodium restriction. The average American diet contains more than 4,000 mg of sodium a day. There is no recommended daily allowance for sodium, but the American Heart Association (AHA) recommends that daily consumption of sodium not exceed 2,400 mg, with substantially lower sodium intake for patients with hypertension. (Answer: B—Tell her that reducing intake of sodium and fats while increasing intake of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains usually leads to significant reductions in hypertension)
1. Sacks FM, Svetkey LP, Vollmer WM, et al: Effects on blood pressure of reduced dietary sodium and the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet. DASH-Sodium Collaborative Research Group. N Engl J Med 344:3, 2001
7. A 64-year-old man comes to your clinic for a routine visit. He has a history of myocardial infarction, which was diagnosed 1 year ago. Since that time, he has been asymptomatic, and he has been taking all his medications and following an exercise program. His physical examination is unremarkable. He has been getting some information on the Internet about the use of omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids as part of a cardioprotective diet.
Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning the use of omega-3 fatty acids?
A. Consumption of omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids has been shown to decrease the incidence of recurrent myocardial infarctions
B. Omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids have been shown to decrease lowdensity lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol levels
C. Consumption of omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids is inversely related to the incidence of atherosclerosis and the risk of sudden death and stroke
D. Omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids have been shown to elevate triglyceride levels
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the benefits of omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids
Omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids have been shown to have a cardioprotective effect. Consumption of omega-3 fatty acids is inversely related to the incidence of atherosclerosis and the risk of sudden death and stroke. In high doses, omega-3 fatty acids may reduce blood triglyceride levels, but in dietary amounts, they have little effect on blood lipids. Even in modest amounts, however, omega-3 fatty acids reduce platelet aggregation, thereby impairing thrombogenesis. They may also have antiarrhythmic and plaque-stabilizing properties. (Answer: C—Consumption of omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids is inversely related to the incidence of atherosclerosis and the risk of sudden death and stroke)
8. A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes on a blood sugar screening test. She is started on a diet and undergoes education about diabetes. After a month, she comes back for a follow-up visit and asks you why she should eat complex carbohydrates instead of simple carbohydrates if they are all the same.
Which of the following statements about simple and complex carbohydrates is true?
A. Simple and complex carbohydrates are indeed of the same caloric value, and there is no advantage in using one over the other
B. Simple carbohydrates have a higher glycemic index than complex carbohydrates, and they may decrease high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels
C. Simple carbohydrates have a higher glycemic index than complex carbohydrates, and they may increase HDL cholesterol levels
D. Simple carbohydrates have a lower glycemic index than complex carbohydrates, and they may decrease HDL cholesterol levels
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the difference between simple and complex carbohydrates
Plants are the principal sources of carbohydrates. Simple carbohydrates include monosaccharides such as glucose, fructose, and galactose and disaccharides such as sucrose, malt ose, and lactose. Sugars, starches, and glycogen provide 4 cal/g; because fiber is indi gestible, it has no caloric value. Complex carbohydrates include polysaccharides and fiber. Carbohydrates contribute about 50% of the calories in the average American diet; half of those calories come from sugar and half from complex carbohydrates. Because sugars are more rapidly absorbed, they have a higher glycemic index than starches. In addition to provoking higher insulin levels, carbohydrates with a high glycemic index appear to reduce HDL cholesterol levels and may increase the risk of coronary artery disease. Food rich in complex carbohydrates also provides vitamins, trace minerals, and other valuable nutrients. (Answer: B—Simple carbohydrates have a higher glycemic index than complex carbohydrates, and they may decrease high-density lipoprotein [HDL] cholesterol levels)
9. A 52-year-old woman comes to your clinic to establish primary care. She has not seen a doctor in years. She describes herself as being very healthy. She has no significant medical history, nor has she ever used tobacco or ethanol. She underwent menopause 3 years ago. Her physical examination is unremarkable. You ask about her dietary habits and find that the amount of fat that she is eating is in accordance with the AHA recommendations for healthy adults. She does not drink milk. Results of routine laboratory testing are within normal limits.
Which of the following additional dietary recommendations would be appropriate for this patient?
A. Take supplements of calcium, vitamin D, and vitamin A
B. Take supplements of calcium and vitamin D, and restrict the amount of sodium to less than 2,400 mg a day
C. Take supplements of iron, vitamin D, and vitamin A
D. Continue with the present diet
Key Concept/Objective: To know the general recommendations for vitamin and mineral consumption
It is becoming clear that many Americans, particularly the elderly and the poor, do not consume adequate amounts of vitamin-rich foods. There is conflicting information regarding the effects that the use of vitamins and minerals has on health; some recommendations, however, have been accepted. Women of childbearing age, the elderly, and people with suboptimal nutrition should take a single multivitamin daily. Strict vegetarians should take vitamin B12. Use of so-called megadose vitamins should be discouraged. Multivitamin supplements may also be necessary to avert vitamin D deficiencies, particularly in the elderly. Population studies demonstrate conclusively that a high sodium intake increases blood pressure, especially in older people. There is no conclusive evidence that sodium restriction is beneficial to normotensive persons. Pending such information, the AHA recommends that daily consumption of sodium not exceed 2,400 mg, and the National Academy of Sciences proposes a 2,000 mg maximum. Calcium intake is related to bone density; at present, fewer than 50% of Americans consume the recommended daily allowance of calcium. Routine administration of iron is indicated in infants and pregnant women. A high intake of iron may be harmful for patients with hemochromatosis and for others at risk of iron overload. (Answer: B—Take supplements of calcium and vitamin D, and restrict the amount of sodium to less than 2,400 mg a day)
10. A 34-year-old man comes to your clinic to establish primary care. He has no significant medical history. He takes no medications and does not smoke. His family history is significant only with regard to his father, who contracted lung cancer at 70 years of age. You discuss the benefits of exercise with the patient and encourage him to start a regular exercise program.
Which of the following assessment measures would be appropriate in the evaluation of this patient before he starts an exercise program?
A. History, physical examination, complete blood count, and urinalysis
B. History, physical examination, chest x-ray, and electrocardiogram
C. History, physical examination, and echocardiography
D. History, physical examination, exercise, and electrocardiography
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the evaluation of patients starting an exercise program
Physicians can provide important incentives for their patients by educating them about the risks and benefits of habitual exercise. A careful history and physical examination are central to the medical evaluation of all potential exercisers. Particular attention should be given to a family history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, stroke, or sudden death and to symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular disease. Cigarette smoking, sedentary living, hypertension, diabetes, and obesity all increase the risks of exercise and may indicate the need for further testing. Physical findings suggestive of pulmonary, cardiac, or peripheral vascular disease are obvious causes of concern. A musculoskeletal evaluation is also important. The choice of screening tests for apparently healthy individuals in controversial. A complete blood count and urinalysis are reasonable for all patients. Young adults who are free of risk factors, symptoms, and abnormal physical findings do not require further evaluation. Although electrocardiography and echocardiography might reveal asymptomatic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in some patients, the infrequency of this problem makes routine screening impractical. The AHA no longer recommends routine exercise electrocardiography for asymptomatic individuals. (Answer: A—History, physical examination, complete blood count, and urinalysis)
For more information, see Simon HB: Clinical Essentials: IV Diet and Exercise. ACP Medicine Online (www.acpmedicine.com). Dale DC, Federman DD, Eds. WebMD Inc., New York, September 2003
Adult Preventive Health Care
11. A healthy 50-year-old mother of three moves to your town from an inner-city area where she received no regular health care. She has never had any immunizations, will be working as a librarian, and plans no international travel. History and physical examination do not suggest any underlying chronic illnesses.
Which of the following immunizations would you recommend for this patient?
A. Measles, mumps, rubella
B. Hepatitis B
C. Tetanus-diphtheria
D. Pneumococcal
D. All of the above
Key Concept/Objective: To know the recommendations for routine adult immunization
Only 65 cases of tetanus occur in the United States each year, and most occur in individu als who have never received the primary immunization series, whose immunity has waned, or who have received improper wound prophylaxis. The case-fatality rate is 42% in individuals older than 50 years. This patient should therefore receive the primary series of three immunizations with tetanus-diphtheria toxoids. Because she was born before 1957, she is likely to be immune to measles, mumps, and rubella. She does not appear to fall into one of the high-risk groups for whom hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and pneumococcal vaccinations are recommended. (Answer: C—Tetanus-diphtheria)
For more information, see Snow CF: Clinical Essentials: V Adult Preventive Health Care. ACP Medicine Online (www.acpmedicine.com). Dale DC, Federman DD, Eds. WebMD Inc., New York, March 2002
Health Advice for International Travelers
12. A 43-year-old man with asymptomatic HIV infection (stage A1; CD4+ T cell count, 610; viral load, < 50 copies/ml) seeks your advice regarding immunizations for a planned adventure bicycle tour in Africa. He is otherwise healthy, takes no medications, and has no known allergies. He is known to be immune to hepatitis B but is seronegative for hepatitis A. His trip will last approximately 3 weeks and will include travel to rural areas and to areas beyond usual tourist routes. You counsel him about safe food practices, safe sex, and mosquito-avoidance measures.
What should you recommend for malaria prophylaxis?
A. No prophylaxis
B. Chloroquine
C. Pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine
D. Mefloquine
E. Amoxicillin
Key Concept/Objective: To know the specific indications and options for malaria prophylaxis for the international traveler
Appropriate malaria chemoprophylaxis is the most important preventive measure for travelers to malarial areas. In addition to advice about the avoidance of mosquitos and the use of repellants, most visitors to areas endemic for malaria should receive chemoprophylaxis, regardless of the duration of exposure. In most parts of the world where malaria is found, including Africa, chloroquine resistance is common, so chloroquine would not be recommended as prophylaxis for this patient. Pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine is no longer recommended for prophylaxis because of the associated risk of serious mucocutaneous reactions. Amoxicillin does not have known efficacy against Plasmodium. Mefloquine is the preferred agent for malaria chemoprophylaxis in areas of the world where chloroquineresistant malaria is present. (Answer: D—Mefloquine)
13. A 56-year-old man seeks your advice regarding malaria prophylaxis before a planned 10-day business trip to New Delhi, India. His medical problems include atrial fibrillation and medication-controlled bipolar disorder. He has no known allergies; his regular medications include diltiazem and lithium.
What should you recommend to this patient regarding malaria prophylaxis?
A. No prophylaxis is required because his trip will be less than 14 days long
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine
E. Doxycycline
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the options for prophylaxis of chloroquine-resistant malaria
Chloroquine-resistant malaria is widespread and occurs in India. Thus, chloroquine would not be appropriate. Pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine is generally not used for prophylaxis because of the risk of severe mucocutaneous reactions. Mefloquine and doxycycline are the most commonly used chemoprophylactic agents for travelers to chloroquine-resistant malarial areas. Although mefloquine is generally well-tolerated in prophylactic doses, underlying cardiac conduction abnormalities and neuropsychiatric disorders or seizures are generally considered contraindications for mefloquine use. Thus, daily doxycycline taken from the start of the travel period until 4 weeks after departure from malarial areas would be the best choice for malaria chemoprophylaxis for this patient. (Answer: E— Doxycycline)
14. A 48-year-old woman seeks your advice about prevention of traveler’s diarrhea. Her only medical problems include diet-controlled diabetes mellitus and occasional candidal vaginitis. She will be visiting Bombay and several rural villages for a total of 8 days as an inspector of sewage-treatment facilities. Given her tight schedule, it is imperative that she not lose any time as a result of diarrhea. You counsel her about safe food practices, prescribe mefloquine for malaria prophylaxis, and immunize her appropriately.
Which of the following would be the best choice for prevention of traveler’s diarrhea in this patient?
A. Loperamide daily
B. Ciprofloxacin daily
C. Doxycycline daily
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole daily
E. Erythromycin daily
Key Concept/Objective: To know the prophylactic options for traveler’s diarrhea
Traveler’s diarrhea is most commonly caused by bacteria (particularly enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli). Travelers should follow safe food practices and may take either chemoprophylaxis or begin treatment after onset. For the patient in this question (whose visit will be relatively short and who cannot afford to have her schedule interrupted by an episode of diarrhea), chemoprophylaxis is a reasonable approach. A quinolone, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, bismuth subsalicylate, and doxycycline are all options. Resistance to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is widespread, so this drug would be less than optimal. Vaginal candidiasis is a common complication of doxycycline (particularly in a patient with diabetes and a history of candidal vaginitis), and therefore doxycycline would not be suitable for this patient. Of the choices, ciprofloxacin would be the best option. Loperamide or erythromycin would not be an appropriate choice for the chemoprophylaxis of traveler’s diarrhea. (Answer: B—Ciprofloxacin daily)
15. A 35-year-old woman in excellent health is planning a trip to remote areas of Asia. She has not traveled abroad before, and she wants some information on travel-related illnesses and risks. She has had her childhood immunizations, and her tetanus immunization was updated last year. She has an aversion to immunizations and medications but will accept them if needed.
What is the most common preventable acquired infection associated with travel for this person?
A. Malaria
B. Typhus
C. Hepatitis A
D. Cholera
E. Yellow fever
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the risks of infection associated with travel to various parts of the world
Travel-related risks of infection are dependent on which part of the world an individual will be traveling to, the length of stay, and any underlying predisposing medical factors. Hepatitis A is prevalent in many underdeveloped countries and is the most common preventable infection acquired by travelers. Malaria is also a risk for this individual, but it is not acquired as commonly as hepatitis A. Sexually transmitted diseases are a frequent risk for travelers and should be discussed with patients. Typhus vaccine is no longer made in the United States and is not indicated for most travelers. Cholera vaccination is not very effective and is not recommended for travelers. Yellow fever is not a risk for this individ ual, who will be traveling in Asia; yellow fever would be a risk if she were traveling to parts of Africa or South America. (Answer: C—Hepatitis A)
16. A 42-year-old male executive who works for a multinational company will be flying to several countries in Asia over a 2-week period. He has not traveled overseas before. His past medical history is significant for mild hypertension, for which he takes medication, and for a splenectomy that he underwent for injuries from an automobile accident. He had routine childhood immunizations, but he has received none since. The itinerary for his business trip includes 4 days in India, 5 days in Singapore, and 3 days in Malaysia.
Which of the following would NOT be recommended for this patient?
A. Hepatitis A vaccination
B. Meningococcal vaccination
C. Yellow fever vaccination
D. Malaria prophylaxis
E. Tetanus booster
Key Concept/Objective: To understand pretravel evaluation and immunizations
Yellow fever is endemic in Africa and South America but not in Asia, and therefore, yellow fever vaccination is not recommended for this person. Medical consultation for travel should be obtained at least 1 month before travel to allow for immunizations. A travel itinerary and a general medical history should be obtained to define pertinent underlying medical conditions. Hepatitis A is the most common preventable acquired infection among travelers, and therefore, hepatitis A vaccine should be offered. Because this patient has undergone a splenectomy, meningococcal vaccination should be recommended because he is predisposed to more severe infections with encapsulated bacteria, specifically, more severe babesiosis or malaria. Malaria is a risk for travelers in this area of the world, and therefore, chemoprophylaxis is recommended. A tetanus-diphtheria booster should be administered every 10 years, and boosters should be administered before travel. (Answer: C—Yellow fever vaccination)
17. A 26-year-old asymptomatic man who was recently diagnosed as being HIV positive will be traveling in South America. He has no planned itinerary and has not started any medications. He has had routine childhood immunizations and has not previously traveled overseas. He has a severe allergy to egg proteins.
Which of the following should this patient receive before he travels?
A. Oral typhoid vaccine
B. Oral polio vaccine
C. Yellow fever vaccine
D. Measles vaccine
E. Meningococcal vaccine
Key Concept/Objective: To know the contraindications for common travel immunizations
Vaccines that contain live, attenuated viruses should not be given to pregnant women or persons who are immunodeficient or who are potentially immunodeficient. Oral typhoid and oral polio vaccines are both live, attenuated vaccines and should not be given to an HIV-positive individual. An alternative to both vaccines is the killed parenteral vaccines. Yellow fever is also a live vaccine; the risks of the use of this vaccine in HIV-infected patients have not been established. However, severe allergic reaction to egg proteins is a contraindication for yellow fever vaccinations, and therefore, that vaccine should not be given to this person. Some countries in South America may require proof of yellow fever vaccination, and the patient should be advised of this before travel. The one exception to the use of live, attenuated vaccines in immunocompromised individuals is measles vaccinations. Measles can be severe in HIV-positive patients, and therefore, measles immunization should be provided if the patient is not severely immunocompromised and if he was immunized for measles before 1980. (Answer: D—Measles vaccine)
18. A middle-aged couple is planning a 1-week trip to Africa. They are both in excellent health and are not taking any medications. They have previously been to Africa and were given mefloquine prophylactically for malaria because of the presence of chloroquine-resistant strains of malaria in this area. However, both had to discontinue the medication before completing the regimen because of severe side effects, which included nausea and dizziness.
Which of the following is an acceptable recommendation for the prevention of malaria for this couple?
A. Recommend no prophylaxis because their risk is minimal, owing to the length of their stay, and the side effects from prophylaxis outweigh the benefits
B. Recommend chloroquine because its side effects are milder than those of mefloquine
C. Recommend doxycycline and emphasize the need to use sun protection
D. Recommend that additional general preventive measures such as the use of strong insect repellent, staying indoors in the evenings and at nighttime, and covering exposed areas are unnecessary when taking medications for prophylaxis
E. Recommend seeking immediate medical attention for any febrile illnesses that occur during travel or within the first week upon return
Key Concept/Objective: To understand general and chemoprophylatic measures for preventing travel-associated malaria
Malaria is prevalent in various parts of the world. Chloroquine resistance is increasing worldwide and is very common in sub-Saharan Africa. Mefloquine and malarone are treatments of choice for chemoprophylaxis. Mefloquine’s side effects are usually minor, but mefloquine can cause severe nausea and dizziness, which can lead some patients to discontinue treatment. Because even brief exposure to infected mosquitoes can produce malaria, travel in endemic regions, no matter how brief the duration, mandates the use of chemoprophylaxis in addition to general precautions, such as covering exposed skin, staying indoors in the evenings and at night, and using insect repellent. Doxycycline is an acceptable alternative to mefloquine and should be recommended when persons are traveling to regions in which chloroquine-resistant malaria is known to occur. Doxycycline increases photosensitivity skin reactions, and avoidance of sun exposure should be emphasized. Despite chemoprophylaxis, travelers can still contract malaria; symptoms begin 8 days to 2 months after infection. (Answer: C—Recommend doxycycline and emphasize the need to use sun protection)
For more information, see Weller PF: Clinical Essentials: VII Health Advice for International Travelers. ACP Medicine Online (www.acpmedicine.com). Dale DC, Federman DD, Eds.
WebMD Inc., New York, January 2005
Quantitative Aspects of Clinical Decision Making
19. A 56-year-old black man presents to your office for evaluation. For the past 6 months, the patient has been experiencing fatigue and mild dyspnea on exertion. He has no pertinent medical history. He denies having chest pain, orthopnea, edema, fever, or chills, but he does state that he has developed intermittent numbness and tingling of his distal extremities. Physical examination is significant only for conjunctival pallor and decreased vibratory sensation in both feet. CBC reveals normal WBC and platelet counts, a hematocrit of 28%, and a mean corpuscular volume of 115 fl. Blood smear is significant for multiple hypersegmented neutrophils. Alcohol screening by history is negative. The patient takes no medications, and he denies having any risk factor for HIV infection. Further laboratory testing reveals normal liver function, a low reticulocyte count, and normal serum vitamin B12 and RBC folate levels.
Which of the following statements regarding the necessity of further testing for vitamin B12 deficien cy is true?
A. Assuming the serum vitamin B12 test has a low sensitivity and high specificity, no further testing is needed
B. Assuming the serum vitamin B12 test has a low sensitivity and low specificity, no further testing is needed
C. Assuming the serum vitamin B12 test is 100% specific, no further testing is needed
D. Considering this patient’s high pretest probability for vitamin B12 deficiency and knowing that the vitamin B12 assay is not perfect (i.e., that it has a sensitivity of less than 100%), further testing is required
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the importance of sensitivity and specificity and pretest probability in the interpretation of test results
The vast majority of tests used in the daily practice of medicine are less than perfect. For any given test, four possible results are possible. Of these results, two are true and two are false. The two true results are (a) a positive result when disease is present (true positive), and (b) a negative result when disease is absent (true negative). Two false results are always possible for any given test: (a) the test can be negative when disease is present (false negative), and (b) the test can be positive when disease is absent (false positive). A test with high sensitivity has mostly true positive results and few false negative results; a test with high specificity has mostly true negative results and few false positive results. In addition, clinicians need to recognize the importance of the likelihood of disease before using a test (i.e., pretest probability). If in a given patient the likelihood of disease is high (as in this patient with vitamin B12 deficiency), then only a test with 100% sensitivity would exclude the diagnosis. Because the sensitivity of the B12 assay is less than 100%, the clinician should continue to pursue this diagnosis if the patient has a high pretest probability. Proceeding with a measurement of methylmalonic acid is indicated for this patient. (Answer: D—Considering this patient’s high pretest probability for vitamin B12 deficiency and knowing that the vitamin B12 assay is not perfect [i.e., that it has a sensitivity of less than 100%], further testing is required)
20. A childhood friend who has recently become a father contacts you for advice. The pediatrician has informed him and his wife that their child has tested positive on a screening for phenylketonuria (PKU). Your friend would like you to comment on the accuracy of this screening test. You realize that PKU is a very uncommon illness in newborns in North America, occurring in less than one in 10,000 newborns. You also know that the commonly used test for the detection of PKU is highly sensitive and, therefore, almost never results in a false negative test. You know of no good data regarding the specificity of the test.
Which of the following statements is most appropriate as a response to this concerned father?
A. The child has PKU with 100% certainty
B. Considering the high sensitivity of the test, false positive test results are very unlikely
C. On the basis of the very low prevalence of PKU, further testing must be undertaken to determine whether or not the infant has this illness
D. Additional testing, employing a test with even greater sensitivity, is needed
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the importance of sensitivity and prevalence on the interpretation of test results
In the absence of perfectly sensitive or specific tests, clinicians need to be prepared to order tests in a sequential manner. A perfect test for screening should have both high sensitivity (i.e., the test would miss few diseased patients) and high specificity (i.e., few of the patients being tested would be incorrectly identified as having a disease). If asked to choose between a screening test with high sensitivity and one with high specificity, a highly sensitive test would be preferred to minimize false negative results; this high sensitivity usually comes at the expense of lower specificity. This case concerns a highly sensitive test that is applied to a large population (all newborns in the United States). Because of the high sensitivity of the test, very few cases of disease will be missed. However, a few newborns will be misidentified as having PKU, because the specificity of the test is less than perfect. To confirm the diagnosis suggested by the screening test, a confirmatory test that has high er specificity is needed (such tests are usually more expensive or difficult to perform). (Answer: C—On the basis of the very low prevalence of PKU, further testing must be undertaken to determine whether or not the infant has this illness)
For more information, see Haynes B, Sox HC: Clinical Essentials: VIII Quantitative Aspects of Clinical Decision Making. ACP Medicine Online (www.acpmedicine.com). Dale DC, Federman DD, Eds. WebMD Inc., New York, April 2004
Palliative Medicine
21. A 55-year-old man is discharged from the hospital after presenting with a myocardial infarction. Before discharge, an echocardiogram shows an ejection fraction of 20%. The patient is free of chest pain; however, he experiences shortness of breath with minimal physical activity. The patient and his family tell you that they have a neighbor who is on a hospice program, and they ask you if the patient could be referred for hospice.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?
A. Palliative care together with medical treatment of his condition
B. Referral to hospice
C. The prognosis is unknown at this time, so palliative care and hospice are not indicated; the patient should continue receiving medical care for his heart failure
D. Pain is not a component of his disease at this time, so neither hospice nor palliative care are indicated; medical therapy should be continued
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the indications for palliative care and hospice
This patient’s condition is not terminal at this time, and he may benefit from symptomatic management. The palliative medicine model applies not only to patients who are clearly at the end of life but also to those with chronic illnesses that, although not imminently fatal, cause significant impairment in function, quality of life, and independence. Palliative medicine for patients with serious illness thus should no longer be seen as the alternative to traditional life-prolonging care. Instead, it should be viewed as part of an integrated approach to medical care. Hospice is one way to deliver palliative care. Hospice provides home nursing, support for the family, spiritual counseling, pain treatment, medications for the illness that prompted the referral, medical care, and some inpatient care. Palliative care differs from hospice care in that palliative care can be provided at any time during an illness; it may be provided in a variety of settings, and may be combined with curative treatments. It is independent of the third-party payer. Medicare requires that recipients of hospice spend 80% of care days at home, which means that to qualify for hospice, the patient must have a home and have caregivers capable of providing care. In addition, Medicare requires that recipients have an estimated survival of 6 months or less and that their care be focused on comfort rather than cure. (Answer: A—Palliative care together with medical treatment of his condition)
22. A 77-year-old African-American woman is admitted to the hospital with severe shortness of breath. She lives in a nursing home. The patient has a history of dementia and left hemiplegia. A chest x-ray shows a large pneumonia and several masses that are consistent with metastatic disease. The patient is a widow and does not have a designated health care proxy. You discuss the situation with her granddaughter, who used to live with her before the patient was transferred to the nursing home. She asks you to do everything that is in your hands to save her life. The rest of the family lives 2 hours from the hospital.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action in the care of this patient?
A. Ignore the granddaughter’s requests because any further medical care would be futile
B. Ask the granddaughter to bring the rest of the family, and then discuss the condition and prognosis with them
C. Follow the granddaughter’s requests and proceed with mechanical ventilation if needed
D. Obtain an ethics consult
Key Concept/Objective: To understand cultural differences in approaching end-of-life issues
The ability to communicate well with both patient and family is paramount in palliative care. Patients whose cultural background and language differ from those of the physician present special challenges and rewards and need to be approached in a culturally sensitive manner. People from other cultures may be less willing to discuss resuscitation status, less likely to forgo life-sustaining treatment, and more reluctant to complete advance directives. For example, because of their history of receiving inappropriate undertreatment, African-American patients and their families may continue to request aggressive care, even in terminal illness. Further interventions in this patient may not be indicated, and the physician may decide that doing more procedures on the patient would be unethical; however, it would be more appropriate to have a discussion with the family and to educate them about the condition and prognosis. Not uncommonly, the family will understand, and a consensus decision to avoid further interventions can be obtained. If the medical condition is irreversible and the family insists on continuing with aggressive therapies, the physician may decide that further treatments would be inhumane; in such a circumstance, the physician is not obligated to proceed with those interventions. An ethical consult may also be helpful under these circumstances. (Answer: B—Ask the granddaughter to bring the rest of the family, and then discuss the condition and prognosis with them)
23. A 66-year-old man with Parkinson disease comes to your clinic for a follow-up visit. He was diagnosed with Parkinson disease 3 years ago. His wife tells you that he is very independent and is able to perform his activities of daily living. While reviewing his chart, you find that there are no advance directives.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate step to take with regard to a discussion about advance directives for this patient?
A. Postpone the discussion until his disease progresses to the point where the patient is unable to perform his activities of daily living, making the discussion more relevant
B. Ask the patient to come alone on the next visit so that you can discuss these difficult issues without making the patient feel uncomfortable in the presence of his wife
C. Wait until the patient has a life-threatening illness so that the discussion would be more appropriate
D. Start the discussion on this visit
Key Concept/Objective: To know the appropriate timing for discussing advance directives
Public opinion polls in the United States have revealed that close to 90% of adults would not want to be maintained on life-support systems without prospect of recovery. A survey of emergency departments found that 77% did not have advance directives, and of those patients who had one, only 5% had discussed their advance directives with their primary care physician. Primary care physicians are in an excellent position to speak with patients about their care preferences because of the therapeutic relationship that already exists between patient and doctor. Conversations about preferences of care should be a routine aspect of care, even in healthy older patients. Determination of the patient’s preferences can be made over two or three visits and then updated on a regular basis. Reevaluation is indicated if the patient’s condition changes acutely. In general, it is preferable that a close family member or friend accompany the patient during these discussions, so that these care preferences can be witnessed and any potential surprises or conflicts can be explored with the family. (Answer: D—Start the discussion on this visit)
24. A 66-year-old man with a history of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis comes to the emergency department with a pulmonary thromboembolism. The patient is unable to talk but can communicate with gestures; his cognitive function is preserved. When asked about advance directives, the patient expresses his wishes not to be mechanically ventilated or resuscitated but to focus on comfort care only. The family is present and disagrees with his decision, saying that he is not competent to make such a decision because of his medical condition. The patient’s respiratory status suddenly deteriorates, and he becomes cyanotic and unresponsive. The family demands that you proceed with all the measures needed to save his life.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate intervention for this patient?
A. Proceed with intubation and obtain an ethics consult
B. Follow the patient’s wishes and continue with comfort measures only
C. Proceed with intubation and life support while obtaining a court opinion on the patient’s competence because of the possibility of litigation
D. Proceed with life support interventions and follow the family’s wishes
Key Concept/Objective: To know the criteria for decision-making capacity
Decision-making capacity refers to the capacity to provide informed consent to treatment. This is different from competence, which is a legal term; competence is determined by a court. Any physician who has adequate training can determine capacity. A patient must meet three key criteria to demonstrate decision-making capacity: (1) the ability to understand information about diagnosis and treatment; (2) the ability to evaluate, deliberate, weigh alternatives, and compare risks and benefits; and (3) the ability to communicate a choice, either verbally, in writing, or with a nod or gesture. In eliciting patient preferences, the clinician should explore the patient’s values. This patient met these three criteria when he made his decision about advance directives, and his wishes should be respected. There is no need for an ethics consult under these circumstances. Fear of litigation should not influence the decision to follow the patient’s wishes. (Answer: B—Follow the patient’s wishes and continue with comfort measures only)
For more information, see Pann C: Clinical Essentials: IX Palliative Medicine. ACP Medicine Online (www.acpmedicine.com). Dale DC, Federman DD, Eds. WebMD Inc., New York, September 2003
Symptom Management in Palliative Medicine
25. A patient with terminal lung cancer on home hospice is brought to the hospital by his family for admission. He is agitated and confused, and his family is unable to care for him at home. Upon examination, the patient is disoriented and appears to be having visual hallucinations.
Which of the following statements is true regarding delirium in terminal patients?
A. Benzodiazepines are first-line therapy for treatment of delirium
B. If the patient’s condition is deemed terminal, there is no point in address ing the specific underlying cause of the dementia
C. Physical restraints should generally be used for patient safety in the setting of delirium
D. The subcutaneous route is a viable option for the administration of benzodiazepines
E. Delirium generally occurs only in patients with underlying dementia
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the treatment of delirium in the terminally ill patient
Pharmacologic treatment for relief of symptoms of delirium is best achieved through the use of antipsychotic agents such as haloperidol or risperidone. Benzodiazepines and sedatives should be used only if antipsychotic agents fail. In as many as 25% of terminally ill patients who experience delirium characterized by escalating restlessness, agitation, or hallucinations, relief is achieved only with sedation. Even in a terminally ill patient, treatment of the underlying cause (e.g., infection, hypoxemia) can be the best way to improve the delirium. Physical restraints can actually be a precipitating factor for delirium and should be avoided in the delirious patient whenever possible. In patients who cannot take oral medications and in whom a functional intravenous line is not available, the subcutaneous route is a rapidly effective way to administer certain medications, including midazolam. Patients with underlying dementia are predisposed to delirium, but delirium can occur in patients with other comorbidities. (Answer: D—The subcutaneous route is a viable option for the administration of benzodiazepines)
26. An 80-year-old man with very poor functional status who has a history of cerebrovascular accident presents to the emergency department from the nursing home with severe shortness of breath. Chest x-ray shows that he has severe pneumonia. The patient is intubated immediately and transferred to the ICU. His condition worsens over the next several days, despite aggressive therapy. His family decides that because of the severity of the patient’s illness and his poor functional status before this illness, they want him taken off the ventilator. They approach you with this request.
Which of the following statements accurately characterizes ventilator withdrawal in this situation?
A. You should refuse the family’s request on ethical grounds
B. To protect the family’s emotions, you should not allow them to be with the patient until after the endotracheal tube has been removed
C. Pulse oximetry should be followed to help guide the family through the dying process
D. You should demonstrate that the patient is comfortable receiving a lower fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) before withdrawing the endotracheal tube
E. Such patients generally die within 30 minutes to an hour after the endotracheal tube is removed
Key Concept/Objective: To understand how to appropriately perform the process of terminal ventilation withdrawal
Every physician has his or her own level of comfort with regard to terminal ventilation withdrawal. However, in a situation in which the family makes a very reasonable request and the patient’s wishes are not known, the family’s wishes should generally be followed. The family should be given the opportunity to be with the patient when the endotracheal tube is removed. The decision should be theirs to make. All monitors should be turned off at the initiation of the process. The patient’s comfort will guide therapy. FIO2 should be diminished to 20%, and the patient should be observed for respiratory distress before removing the endotracheal tube. Distress can be treated with opioids and benzodiazepines. It is important to inform the family that a patient may live for hours to days after the ventilator is removed and to reassure them that all measures necessary to ensure comfort dur ing the dying process will be used. (Answer: D—You should demonstrate that the patient is comfortable receiving a lower fraction of inspired oxygen [FIO2] before withdrawing the endotracheal tube)
27. A patient with severe dementia has developed worsening anorexia and nausea over the past 6 weeks. You have turned your attention to symptom management.
Which of the following statements accurately characterizes treatment of these complications of severe dementia?
A. Haloperidol has minimal effects against nausea
B. Even though this patient has severe dementia, it would be unethical to withhold nutrition and hydration
C. A feeding tube will reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonia
D. Prochlorperazine relieves nausea by blocking serotonin at its site of action in the vomiting center of the brain
E. Impaction may explain all the symptoms
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the management of nausea and anorexia near the end of life
Haloperidol is highly effective against nausea and may be less sedating than many commonly used agents, such as prochlorperazine. Because of the terminal and irreversible nature of end-stage dementia and the substantial burden that continued life-prolonging care may pose, palliative care focused predominantly on the comfort of the patient is often viewed as preferable to life-prolonging measures by a substantial proportion of nursing home patients and family members. Every physician must make his or her own decision, but it is never unethical to withhold nutrition and hydration if these are not helping the patient. There is no evidence that tube feeding reduces the risk of pneumonia in such patients, and it may even increase it. Dopamine-mediated nausea is probably the most common form of nausea, and it is the form of nausea most frequently targeted for initial symptom management. Prochlorperazine relieves dopamine-mediated nausea. Bowel impaction could easily explain the gradually worsening anorexia and nausea in a bedridden patient. (Answer: E—Impaction may explain all the symptoms)
28. In a palliative care unit, a patient with terminal ovarian cancer became dramatically less responsive several hours ago. Her breathing pattern has changed, and it appears that she is actively dying.
Which of the following statements accurately characterizes appropriate physician management during the last hours of living?
A. Subcutaneous hydration prevents the discomfort that terminal dehydration causes
B. The body should be removed very soon after death for the emotional well-being of the family
C. Scopolamine can be useful for diminishing pharyngeal secretions
D. At this point, the unconscious patient is unaware of the surroundings
E. Physician contact of the family after the death implies concern about improper management on the part of the physician
Key Concept/Objective: To understand basic management principles that should be employed during the final hours of life
Dehydration in the final hours of living does not cause distress and may stimulate endorphin release that adds to the patient’s sense of well-being. The removal of the body too soon after death can be even more upsetting to the family than the moment of death, so the family should be given the time they need with the body. Scopolamine, an anticholinergic, can diminish pharyngeal secretions and relieve the so-called death rattle: noisy respirations caused by secretions as they move up and down with expiration and inspiration. Always presume that the unconscious patient hears everything. This very well may be true and will be comforting to the family. The physician should consider contacting the family during the bereavement period by letter or visit. Physician contact during this period can help the family deal with grief and does not imply that a medical error was made. (Answer: C—Scopolamine can be useful for diminishing pharyngeal secretions)
For more information, see Carney MT, Rhodes-Kropf J: Clinical Essentials: X Symptom Management in Palliative Medicine. ACP Medicine Online (www.acpmedicine.com). Dale DC, Federman DD, Eds. WebMD Inc., New York, July 2002
Psychosocial Issues in Terminal Illness
29. A 64-year-old man presented to the emergency department complaining of substernal chest pressure that radiated to his left arm. Subsequent evaluation revealed that the patient had suffered myocardial infarction. He received appropriate treatment, and his condition improved. Over the first 2 days of his hospitalization, the patient expressed fears of death and was anxious. However, on hospital day 3, his fears and anxiety seem to subside.
Which of the following emotions does such a patient usually experience?
A. Jubilance
B. Acceptance
C. Depression
D. Denial
Key Concept/Objective: To know the sequence of emotions experienced by those coping with acute illness
Studies have been conducted in patients with myocardial infarction regarding the patients’ emotional reactions to their illness. The general sequence of these emotions is fear and anxiety, stabilization, denial, confirmation of illness, and then despondency. It is important to be familiar with these concepts; patients in the denial stage have been known to sign themselves out of the hospital against medical advice. The physician should gently reassure the patient and remind the patient of the plan of treatment, the benefits of continued care, and the risks of deviating from the management plan. Family and friends should also be involved if possible. (Answer: D—Denial)
30. A 67-year-old woman is diagnosed as having adenocarcinoma of the breast, which has metastasized to bone. She has been admitted to the hospital for pain control. During hospitalization, the patient develops sadness and anhedonia accompanied by continued problems with her pain and frequent crying spells. You worry that she has developed depression and would like to provide symptomatic relief in the next few days.
Which of the following is NOT a use for methylphenidate (Ritalin) and pemolin (Cylert) in the palliative care setting?
A. Short-term treatment of depression
B. To stimulate appetite
C. To counteract opiate sedation
D. To potentiate opiate analgesia
Key Concept/Objective: To understand alternative medications that can hasten relief of symptoms of depression in the palliative care setting
Because standard therapies for depression typically require several weeks to take full effect, other treatment modalities have been sought for use as palliative care for those with depression and for short-term treatment. Methylphenidate and pemolin are psychostimulants that are useful for the short-term treatment of depression. They are also useful in counteracting opiate sedation, and they potentiate opiate analgesia. These medications may suppress appetite. (Answer: B—To stimulate appetite)
31. A 70-year-old woman has just lost her husband to prostate cancer. She comes to your office for a routine health maintenance visit. You note that she seems more reserved and less interactive than normal. You ask her how she is handling the loss of her husband.
What is the best predictor of later problems associated with abnormal grieving?
A. Inability to grieve immediately after loss (e.g., an absence of weeping)
B. A close relationship with the deceased
C. Unresolved issues with the deceased
D. Somatic symptoms
Key Concept/Objective: To know the best predictor of problems associated with abnormal grieving in a patient who has lost a loved one
Grief is the psychological process by which an individual copes with loss. One of the greatest losses—and stressors—that one may suffer is the loss of a spouse. There are many recognized features of normal grieving that can be mistaken for pathologic conditions. Normal grieving can include somatic symptoms, feelings of guilt, preoccupation with the deceased person, hostile reactions, irritability, and some disruption of normal patterns of behavior. The best predictor of later problems associated with abnormal grieving is an inability to grieve immediately after the loss, as evidenced by the absence of weeping. Other important predictors of abnormal grieving include prolonged hysteria that is excessive in terms of the patient’s own cultural norms; overactivity in the absence of a sense of loss; and furious hostility against specific persons, such as caregivers, to the exclusion of the other concerns associated with normal grief. (Answer: A—Inability to grieve immediately after loss [e.g., an absence of weeping])
32. A 78-year-old man is brought to you by his family because he has not been acting himself since his wife passed away 2 months ago. The family is worried about him and states that he has become more reclusive and less active over the past few weeks. They even worry that he is hearing his dead wife’s voice and seeing visions of her.
Which of the following features is NOT an aspect of normal grieving?
A. Somatic symptoms
B. Guilt
C. A feeling that one is hearing, is seeing, or is touched by the dead person
D. Giving away personal belongings
Key Concept/Objective: To be able to distinguish normal from abnormal grieving
Features of normal grieving are easily mistaken as pathologic. However, these features have been well established in those suffering serious loss, such as the loss of a spouse. Somatic symptoms such as fatigue, gastrointestinal symptoms, and choking are prominent, as are feelings of guilt. Preoccupation with the image of the deceased can manifest as continual mental conversations with them as well as the feeling that one is hearing, seeing, or being touched by the dead person. Hostile reactions, irritability, and disruption of normal patterns of conduct are also common. Self-destructive behavior such as giving away belongings, ill-advised business deals, and other self-punitive actions are early indicators of abnormal grieving. Patients showing evidence of abnormal grieving should receive counseling to help bring their feelings into the open and facilitate recovery. (Answer: D—Giving away personal belongings)
33. A 34-year-old woman has lost her husband in a traffic accident. She comes to see you for a health maintenance visit but seems despondent. You speak with her at length, and it seems that she is suffering a normal grief reaction to the loss of her husband.
Which of the following will NOT facilitate this patient’s grieving?
A. The opportunity for the patient to see her husband’s remains
B. The patient’s returning to her job
C. The patient’s joining a self-help group
D. The health care provider’s pointing out that life must go on and that the patient should do her best to be cheerful
Key Concept/Objective: To know measures that will facilitate normal grieving
The bereaved tend to be isolated from society. Many persons in our society are uncomfortable around people who are in grieving, and the bereaved are often encouraged—and subsequently force themselves—to suppress the manifestations of their grief. Survivors are at high risk for abnormal or complicated bereavement if their loved one died unexpectedly or suddenly, if the death was violent, and if no bodily remains were found. Seeing the body of the deceased facilitates grieving, and returning to one’s job helps with recovery and return to normalcy. Self-help groups allow the bereaved to express feelings, relate to others with similar experiences, and rebuild self-esteem. Statements that negate or argue against grieving should be avoided. (Answer: D—The health care provider’s pointing out that life must go on and that the patient should do her best to be cheerful)
34. A 78-year-old woman with widely metastatic ovarian cancer is admitted to the hospital for intractable pain. High doses of opiates are required to control her pain, but she is intermittently alert and interactive. Several family members visit her. During rounds, one of her sons asks you whether the patient’s 8year-old great-granddaughter should be brought to see her.
Which of the following is the most appropriate answer to this relative’s question?
A. Children should not see loved ones in such a condition
B. He should ask the patient
C. The child’s parents should decide
D. The child should be asked if she would like to see her great-grandmother
Key Concept/Objective: To understand that the visits of children can be of great comfort to terminally ill patients and that the best way to determine if a particular child should visit a patient is to ask the child if he or she would like to do so
Visits of children are among the most effective ways to bring comfort to the terminally ill patient. In addition, allowing children to be present during the dying process provides an opportunity for them to learn that death is not necessarily a terrifying or violent process. Although it is preferable that the entire family agree that it is appropriate for a child to see their dying relative, the best criterion for determining whether such a visit should occur is to ask the child if he or she would like to see the loved one. (Answer: D—The child should be asked if she would like to see her great-grandmother)
For more information, see Rhodes-Kropf J, Cassern NH: Clinical Essentials: XI Management of Psychosocial Issues in Terminal Illness. ACP Medicine Online (www.acpmedicine.com). Dale DC, Federman DD, Eds. WebMD Inc., New York, May 2002
Complementary and Alternative Medicine
35. A patient comes to your office and states that she is absolutely convinced that acupuncture will help her fibromyalgia. You would like to present data to her that either refute or support this practice.
Which of the following statements regarding complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) is false?
A. Critical reviews of published studies on CAM therapies from a number of countries have shown that they are almost universally positive
B. Establishment of adequate control groups is frequently difficult
C. The therapies themselves are not standardized and are therefore difficult to compare
D. Studies are funded by special interest groups and therefore have potential to be biased
E. Many patients do not feel a need to communicate their use of alternative medicine modalities to their physician
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the inherent difficulties in obtaining and interpreting research information on CAM
One of the defining characteristics of alternative medicine is the paucity of definitive evidence supporting mechanism of action, efficacy, and safety. Although a number of clinical trials on CAM have been published, the overall quality of these trials is quite poor, primarily because of insufficient sample size and a lack of randomization and blinding. One concern is that only studies that report positive results make it to press. Another concern is that establishing adequate control groups is very difficult because, by their very nature, the therapies cannot preserve subject blinding. Another issue is that the therapies themselves lack standardization. For example, different forms of acupuncture may utilize completely unique sets of points for treatment of the same condition. If the physician is not aware that the patient is using some form of CAM, it can be very difficult to advise the patient properly. Many patients do not feel a need to communicate their use of CAM because of a perception that their physician would be unable to understand and incorporate that information into the treatment plan. Thus, it is very important that the physician inquire about the use of alternative medicine modalities. Physician funding for largescale studies in CAM emanate almost exclusively from governmental resources. There is little private funding for large, well-controlled trials of most CAM treatment modalities. (Answer: D—Studies are funded by special interest groups and therefore have potential to be biased)
36. A patient in your clinic states that her entire family is using acupuncture for everything that ails them.
Which of the following statements regarding the practice of acupuncture is true?
A. Clear evidence supports the use of acupuncture for chemotherapyinduced vomiting
B. There are essentially no adverse events associated with acupuncture
C. Acupuncture was proven ineffective for postoperative vomiting
D. Acupuncture likely has a role in smoking cessation
E. Acupuncture works by stimulating nerves at the needle site
Key Concept/Objective: To understand basic concepts of acupuncture and in which settings it has been proven to be useful
To date, no clear mechanism of action has emerged to explain the potential therapeutic response to acupuncture. In 1997, the National Institutes of Health held a Consensus Development Conference on Acupuncture, which concluded that there is clear evidence to support the use of acupuncture for postoperative, chemotherapy-induced, and probably pregnancy-associated nausea and vomiting.1 Current evidence does not support its use for smoking cessation. Performed correctly, acupuncture is quite safe. Rare case reports of serious adverse events, including skin infections, hepatitis, pneumothorax, and cardiac tamponade, seem to stem from inadequate sterilization of needles and practitioner negligence. (Answer: A—Clear evidence supports the use of acupuncture for chemotherapy-induced vomiting)
1. Acupuncture. NIH Consensus Statement 15(5):1, 1997
37. A 65-year-old woman with a medical history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation with episodes of rapid response, congestive heart failure, and osteoarthritis comes to your office for a routine follow-up visit. She states that she has been taking herbs and nonherbal supplements to help alleviate the symptoms of menopause, combat depression and anxiety, and improve her arthritis.
Which of the following statements regarding CAM treatments is false?
A. St. John’s wort (used to treat depression and anxiety) can decrease serum levels of digoxin
B. Dong quai (used to treat the symptoms of menopause) can prolong the international normalized ratio (INR) in patients taking warfarin
C. The cardioprotective effects of garlic are as yet unproven
D. Kava kava (used to treat anxiety) may potentiate the effect of benzodiazepines and other sedatives
E. Glucosamine and chondroitin have been proven to be ineffective in treating osteoarthritis
Key Concept/Objective: To become aware of drug interactions of some very commonly used herbal and nonherbal supplements, as well as the effectiveness of these supplements
Several drug interactions are associated with herbal and nonherbal supplements: St. John’s wort can decrease serum digoxin levels; dong quai can prolong INR; and kava kava is known to potentiate sedatives. The definitive beneficial effects of garlic in cardioprotection are unproven. Glucosamine and chondroitin are some of the few supplements for which there are data showing efficacy. Current data suggest symptomatic improvement for osteoarthritis of the hips and knees. There are data supporting the use of St. John’s wort in the treatment of mild to moderate depression. (Answer: E—Glucosamine and chondroitin have been proven to be ineffective in treating osteoarthritis)
38. A patient with chronic back and neck pain reports that he has finally gotten some relief through a local chiropractor. He wants your opinion about the safety and efficacy of chiropractic therapy for such conditions.
Which of the following statements is false regarding chiropractic therapy?
A. Very little data support the use of chiropractic manipulation to treat hypertension, menstrual pain, or fibromyalgia
B. Research may be insufficient to prove a benefit for patients with acute or chronic lower back pain
C. Patients with coagulopathy should be advised against chiropractic therapy
D. Patients who try chiropractic therapy become dissatisfied after the first several treatments
E. Serious complications can occur with cervical manipulation
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the efficacy and contraindications of chiropractic therapy
Chiropractic manipulation has been touted as a treatment for a number of conditions, including hypertension, asthma, menstrual pain, and fibromyalgia. However, very little data support its use for these conditions. Much of the current use of chiropractic care stems from its utility in cases of low back pain. A number of controlled trials on chiropractic treatment for low back pain have been done, with conflicting results. A meta-analysis suggested that research was insufficient to prove a benefit for acute or chronic low back pain. In general, however, patient satisfaction is high with chiropractic therapy. Patients with coagulopathy, osteoporosis, rheumatoid arthritis, spinal neoplasms, or spinal infections should be advised against such treatments. Serious complications have been reported as a result of cervical manipulation, including brain stem or cerebellar infarction, vertebral fracture, tracheal rupture, internal carotid artery dissection, and diaphragmatic paralysis. It is therefore difficult to advocate routine use of cervical manipulation for treatment of head and neck disorders. (Answer: D—Patients who try chiropractic therapy become dissatisfied after the first several treatments)
39. One of your patients tells you that she attended a seminar on the use of mind-body interventions to treat various conditions. She has been using various methods to overcome problems with asthma, anxiety, and substance abuse.
Which of the following statements is false regarding mind-body interventions?
A. The success of hypnotherapy depends on patient attitude toward hypnosis
B. Biofeedback is a relaxation technique in which the patient continually subjectively assesses his or her level of relaxation and makes appropriate adjustments
C. Aromatherapy involves the use of essential oils to induce a relaxation response
D. Mind-body interventions likely affect hormonal balance in a positive manner
Key Concept/Objective: To understand various forms of mind-body interventions
Hypnotherapy is the induction of a trancelike state to induce relaxation and susceptibility to positive suggestion. Success of therapy likely depends on patient susceptibility and attitude toward hypnosis. Biofeedback involves self-regulation of the physiologic response to stress through relaxation techniques. Instrumentation (electroencephalography, electromyography, skin temperature/sweat monitors) is used to assess and guide therapy. Thus, biofeedback is one of the least subjective of the mind-body interventions. Aromatherapy involves the use of essential oils (e.g., jasmine and lavender) to induce a relaxation response. The proposed mechanism of action of mind-body interventions involves hormonal changes (e.g., a decrease in epinephrine levels) and reversal of the physiologic consequences of stress. Counteracting the physiologic effects of stress can presumably help combat the manifestations of various disease states. (Answer: B—Biofeedback is a relaxation technique in which the patient continually subjectively assesses his or her level of relaxation and makes appropriate adjustments)
40. A 54-year-old woman whom you have followed for years in clinic for benign hypertension, osteoporosis, and chronic low back pain returns for her annual examination. She has no new complaints, but she is interested in alternative forms of treatment for her low back pain.
Which of the following statements concerning chiropractic treatment is true?
A. Spinal manipulation is considered a first-line treatment for low back pain because there are no known side effects
B. Studies have suggested that spinal manipulation is an effective treatment option for patients with chronic back pain
C. Health care insurance plans do not cover chiropractic treatments
D. Osteoporosis does not preclude this patient’s use of chiropractic treatment for low back pain
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the uses and limitations of chiropractic treatments
Health care insurance plans, including Medicare, cover many of the services performed during chiropractic visits. Most chiropractic visits are for musculoskeletal problems, including low back pain, neck pain, and extremity pain. Much of the current use of chiropractic care stems from its utility in cases of low back pain. A number of controlled trials on chiropractic treatment for low back pain have been done, with conflicting results. A recent systematic review suggested that spinal manipulation is effective and is a viable treatment option for patients with acute or chronic low back pain. Patient satisfaction also seems to be high with such therapy. Serious complications from lumbar spinal manipulation seem to be uncommon, although there are reports of cauda equina syndrome. Many patients, however, experience mild to moderate side effects, including localized discomfort, headache, or tiredness. These reactions usually disappear within 24 hours. Brain stem or cerebellar infarction, vertebral fracture, tracheal rupture, internal carotid artery dissection, and diaphragmatic paralysis are rare but have all been reported with cervical manipulation. Given the lack of efficacy data and the risk (although small) of catastrophic adverse events, it is difficult to advocate routine use of this technique for treatment of neck or headache disorders. Physicians should also recognize potential contraindications to chiropractic therapy. Patients with coagulopathy, osteoporosis, rheumatoid arthritis, spinal neoplasms, or spinal infections should be advised against such treatments. (Answer: B—Studies have suggested that spinal manipulation is an effective treatment option for patients with chronic back pain)
41. A 63-year-old man presents to your clinic for an initial evaluation. He has a history of coronary artery disease, congestive heart failure, atrial fibrillation, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and erectile dysfunction. His current medical regimen includes hydrochlorothiazide, metoprolol, enalapril, digoxin, coumarin, and terazosin. During the visit, the patient pulls out a bag of vitamins and herbal supplements that he recently began taking. He hands you several Internet printouts regarding the supplements and asks your advice.
Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is true?
A. Under the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA), all supplements are now required to undergo premarket testing for safety and efficacy
B. Because they are natural products, dietary supplements are uniformly safe, with no significant drug-drug interactions
C. The dietary-supplement industry has little incentive for research because natural substances cannot be patented
D. The Food and Drug Administration regulates dietary supplements under the same guidelines as pharmaceuticals
Key Concept/Objective: To understand the potential for toxicity and drug-drug interactions associated with dietary supplements
The supplement industry has become a billion-dollar business, largely as a result of loosening of federal regulations. In 1994, DSHEA expanded the definition of dietary supplements to include vitamins, amino acids, herbs, and other botanicals. Furthermore, under DSHEA, supplements no longer require premarket testing for safety and efficacy. Dietary supplements, such as herbs, may have a significant profit potential, but the incentive for research is weakened by the fact that herbs, like other natural substances, cannot be patented. In addition, foods and natural products are regulated under rules different from those for pharmaceuticals, which must meet stringent standards of efficacy and safety. Although most dietary supplements are well tolerated and are associated with few adverse effects, the potential for harm from the lack of regulation can be seen from examples of misidentification of plant species, contamination with heavy metals, and addition of pharmaceutical agents. Overall, there is only limited evidence supporting the use of most dietary supplements. Most clinical trials have been small, nonrandomized, or unblinded. The potential for significant toxicity and drug interactions does exist. (Answer: C—The dietary-supplement industry has little incentive for research because natural substances cannot be patented)
For more information, see Dobs AS, Ashar BH: Clinical Essentials: XII Complementary and Alternative Medicine. ACP Medicine Online (www.acpmedicine.com). Dale DC, Federman DD, Eds. WebMD Inc., New York, November 2004