Question 1.
A 12-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician’s office because of an elongated nose. She reports that her nose is too big, long, and ugly. She describes it as “disgusting” and is obsessed with getting a rhinoplasty. Her parents state that she has been harassing them for months for the operation and constantly checks her nose in the mirror. The patient states that she cannot sleep at night and spends hours looking over fashion magazines. She says that she cannot stand the sight of her own nose and will try to break it if her parents will not pay for her rhinoplasty. Head, ear, eyes, and neck examination shows an average sized nose with no obvious functional defects. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Anorexia nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by the innate fear of gaining weight and a self-perception of being overweight. Anorexia nervosa is associated with a body mass index less than 18.5 and malnutrition. The classic patient with anorexia nervosa is a thin female marathon runner with osteopenia and amenorrhea.
Body dysmorphic disorder
Major takeaway
Body dysmorphic disorder is a preoccupation with an imagined or slight defect in appearance, sufficient to cause the patient significant distress or interfere with their functioning in some way.
Main explanation
Body dysmorphic disorder is a DSM-V diagnosis characterized by a perceived flaw with the patient’s body which they find “repulsive” and “disgusting.” They are preoccupied with a minor defect with their appearance. Typically, they will describe their imperfection out of proportion to physical examination. This imperfection will occupy their time and they will spend hours distressing over their flaw (i.e. examining their nose in the mirror or analyzing the noses of fashion models). These patients will often go to the extremes to fix their defect and can demand plastic surgery to fix their flaw. Body dysmorphic disorder is more common in women than men and generally affects patients between the age of 15 to 20. An selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor may be helpful in alleviating the symptoms in these patients. Surgery should not be given to these patients as they rarely help correct the perceived imperfections in these patient’s appearance.
Body dysmorphic disorder should be distinguished from other mental disorders. Patients who are afraid that their perceived imperfection will cause social embarrassment should be diagnosed with social anxiety disorder instead. Patients who experience generalized anxietyunrelated to their appearance should be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder instead.
Malingering
Malingering is a psychiatric illness which is similar to factitious disorder. Patients with malingering will exaggerate or fabricate their symptoms. However, they are driven by an external motive. This could include avoiding work or school, obtaining medications, and avoiding jail or military service.
Delusional disorder
Delusions are fixed beliefs that are not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence. In the DSM-V the criteria to make a diagnosis of delusional disorder state that a patients condition must not be better explained by the diagnosis of body dysmorphic disorder.
Social anxiety disorder
Social anxiety disorder is characterized by the fear of social situations which cause significant impairment of daily life. Social anxiety disorder is an egodystonic disorder and patients will experience anxiety which can last 6 months or more.
Question 2.
A 30-year-old woman comes to the office because of breast pain for the past two months. She reports a lump in her right breast that seems to become more tender and increase in size during her period. Physical examination shows a palpable, mobile, firm mass in the right upper outer quadrant of the breast. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Fibroadenoma
Major takeaway
Fibroadenomas are characterized as mobile, firm rubbery masses with sharp edges. They are often estrogen-responsive and therefore increase in size and tenderness during pregnancy or menstruation.
Main explanation
Fibroadenomas are benign lesions of the breast that most often occur in young women of reproductive age. The peak incidence is in women in their third decade of life. Fibroadenomasare typically characterized by firm, rubbery, mobile masses that are viewed as well-definedmasses on ultrasound. They are often estrogen responsive and thus increase in size during pregnancy or menstruation and regress after menopause. Diagnosis can be confirmed with a core biopsy or excision. Surgical excision is not always required for fibroadenomas unless they are symptomatic of exhibit an increase in size. Otherwise, they can be followed with a short-term repeat ultrasound.
Fibrocystic change
Fibrocystic changes usually involve the formation of multiple nodules in the bilateral breasts. They are filled with serous, turbid fluid and may develop microcalcifications which can be seen on mammogram.
Inflammatory carcinoma of the breast
Inflammatory carcinomas are usually comprised of poorly differentiated cells that invade breast parenchyma and block dermal lymphatic spaces. It is characterized clinically by an enlarged, swollen, erythematous breast without a palpable mass.
Intraductal papilloma
Intraductal papillomas are neoplastic growths of papillary cells that are usually found within the principal lactiferous ducts or sinuses. The most common symptom is serous or bloody nipple discharge.
Radial scar
Radial scars are idiopathic lesions that are not palpable. They can occasionally be detected on mammography, but most are diagnosed incidentally upon removal or biopsy of another breast mass.
Question 3.
A 61-year-old woman comes to the clinic because of right face and arm weakness. She also has significant difficulty trying to speak. She has a history of diabetes and hypertension. She also smokes but does not drink alcohol. Physical examination shows a decreased right nasolabial fold at rest and decreased movements of the right face with sparing of the forehead. She also has no right arm movement with only slight flexion. She is unable to form fluent speech. However, she is able to comprehend words and sentences with a simple syntactic structure with little difficulty. She also has difficulty repeating words and phrases and can not name objects. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
Transcortical Motor Aphasia
If the patient had transcortical motor aphasia, she would have poor fluency in communication but intact repetition.
Anomic Aphasia
If the patient had anomic aphasia, she would have presented with fluent communication, poor auditory comprehension, mild difficulty repeating words and significant difficulty retrieving desired words of names and objects.
Conductive Aphasia
If the patient was presenting with conductive aphasia, she would have relatively good auditory comprehension and fluent speech. However, she would have a poor speech repetition.
Receptive (Wernicke's) Aphasia
If the patient had receptive aphasia, she would have fluent paraphasic communication, and defective auditory comprehension. She does not have either of these things.
Expressive (Broca's) Aphasia
Major takeaway
It’s best to think about aphasias using a flow chart. Categorize them first by fluency, then comprehension, then repetition ability. Broca’s expressive aphasia is characterized by poor fluency, intact comprehension, and poor repetition.
Main explanation
This patient has expressive (Broca’s) aphasia. She is non-fluent but she is has mild difficulty with auditory comprehension. She also had moderate difficulty with repetition and severe difficulty with naming objects. The most likely clinical localization in this patient is the left primary motor cortex of the face andarm areas, Broca’s area, and adjacent left frontal cortex. The most common etiology is infarct in the territory of the superior division of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA). She also has many risk factors for the development of a cerebrovascular accident such as hypertension and smoking. Broca’s aphasia is decreased fluency of spontaneous speech. Broca’s espressive aphasia is characterized by poor fluency, intact comprehension, and poor repetition.Commonly associated features in Broca’s aphasiainclude dysarthria andright hemiparesis affecting the face and arm more than the leg.
Question 4.
A 2800-g (6.17-lb) female infant is born vaginally and at term to a 21-year-old woman who failed to have close prenatal follow-ups throughout her pregnancy. Shortly after birth, the infant begins to cough and subsequently undergoes choking episodes. She is cyanotic. Resuscitation efforts are initiated and her condition stabilizes. The following day time-lapsed images of barium swalloware taken and are shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Achalasia
Achalasia, if present, is usually diagnosed in patients between 25 and 60 years. Barium swallow studies show a dilated esophagusthat terminates in a beak-like narrowing, aperistalsis, and poor emptying of barium from the esophagus.
Congenital tracheoesophageal fistula
Major takeaway
Tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is a common congenital anomaly of the respiratory tract. TEF typically occurs with esophageal atresia (EA). TEF and EA are caused by a defect in the lateral septation of the foregut into the esophagus and trachea.
Main explanation
The patient has a congenital tracheoesophageal fistula. A fistula is an abnormal connection between either two tubes (e.g. an artery and a vein), or between a tube and a surface. In tracheoesophageal fistula, there is a tube-tube connection between the trachea and the esophagus. This connection may not have a central cavity (i.e. a patent lumen), but if it does, then food may travel from the esophagus into the trachea, or air may travel in the reverse direction.
Tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is a common congenital anomaly of the respiratory tract. TEF typically occurs with esophageal atresia (EA). TEF and EA are caused by a defect in the lateral septation of the foregut into the esophagus and trachea. TEF and EA, when present together, is usually associated with polyhydramnios during the pregnancy; however, it may not be detected prenatally. Neonates are often characterized by excessive secretions, coughing, choking, and cyanosis secondary to secretions. There are five different types of TEF anatomicvariants, with the most common variant being the proximal atresia.When identified, corrective surgical treatment is usually performed shortly after birth.
Diffuse esophageal spasm
Patients with diffuse esophageal spasms are characterized by dysphagia for solids and liquids. This is a disorder that is rarely seen in the pediatric population and should be lower on the differential.
Mucosal neoplasm
Achalasia-like motility disorder secondary to a mucosal neoplasm is highly rare in neonates. Patients are more likely to be >60 years old, experience weight loss, and experience a difficult passage of an endoscope through the gastroesophageal junction.
Pyloric stenosis
Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (IHPS) is characterized by projectile vomiting due to hypertrophy and obstruction of the gastric outlet. IHPS is present in 2-3/1000 births. Most present between 2-8 weeks of age. Monitoring for a hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis secondary to vomiting is crucial. Ultrasonography is used to detect pyloric stenosis.
Question 5.
A 35-year-old woman comes to the office because of a 5-day history of increasing vaginal discharge accompanied by vaginalpruritus and burning. She reports discomfort during sexual intercourse. Genitourinary examination shows vulvar erythema with a thick white discharge. Wet mount preparation of the discharge with KOH shows branching pseudohyphae with spores. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Testing of sexual partners
Vulvovaginal candidiasis is not typically spread through sexual intercourse, so testing of sexual partners is not routinely recommended.
Fluconazole
Major takeaway
Vulvovaginal candidiasis presents with vulvar pruritus and burning, often accompanied by dysuria, dyspareunia, and thick white discharge. Oral fluconazole is the treatment of choice; however, topical agents are also available and may have fewer systemic side effects.
Main explanation
This patient’s history of vulvar pruritus, thick vaginal discharge, and dyspareunia are common symptoms of vulvovaginal candidiasis, one of the leading causes of vaginitis. Other associated symptoms include vulvar burning or irritation and dysuria. Physical examination typically shows erythema of the vulva and vagina. The diagnosis can be confirmed by wet mountpreparation with KOH, which classically shows branching pseudohyphae with spores, typical of Candida spp. Patients who are otherwise healthy with mild symptoms can be treated with a single dose of oral fluconazole. Local therapies are also available and may be associated with more rapid resolution of symptoms and reduced side effects; however, many patients prefer oral to intravaginal medication.
Amoxicillin
Amoxicillin is an aminopenicillin used to treat many common bacterial infections. This patient’s symptoms are due to fungal infection and would not be improved with antibiotic use.
Doxycycline
Doxycycline is an appropriate treatment for patients with chlamydial cervicitis; however, chlamydial infection would not be associated with pseudohyphae with spores on microscopic examination.
Metronidazole
Metronidazole is the treatment of choice for bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis; however, it is not indicated for the treatment of vulvovaginal candidiasis.
Question 6.
A 23 year old male comes to the office because of shortness of breath and cough, as well as occasional hemoptysis. He has peripheral edema. Urinalysis shows proteinuria (not in the nephrotic range) and a nephritic sediment with dysmorphic red cells, white cells, and red cell and granular casts. Blood serology test shows antibodies to the alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen.What is the appropriate treatment for this disease?
Ampicillin
Ampicillin is an antibiotic which will not address the immune-mediated nature of this patient’s condition. This patient lacks a fever or other symptoms suggestive of a bacterial infection.
Captopril
Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor which are primarily used to treat hypertension and congestive heart failure. They can be used to treat proteinuria, a possible symptom of Goodpasture syndrome, but ACE inhibitorsare not an accepted treatment for the syndrome itself.
IV saline infusion
While it has numerous applications and can improve some of this patient’s symptoms, an intravenous saline infusion will not address the immune-mediated nature of this patient’s condition.
Plasmapheresis combined with prednisone and cyclophosphamide
Major takeaway
Goodpasture syndrome is associated with antibodies to the alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen. Treatment is plasmapheresis combined with prednisone and cyclophosphamide.
Main explanation
This patient has Goodpasture syndrome, an autoimmune disease that targets a certain site (alpha-3 chain of type IV) of collagen in the lungs and kidneys. Pulmonary symptoms, which often occur first, include cough, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. Renal symptoms include hypertension, hematuria, proteinuria, and peripheral edema. Other findings consistent with Goodpasture syndrome include presence of anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) antibodies, as well as glomerulonephritis.
The goal of treatment is to mitigate activity of anti-GBM antibodies. The recommended treatment for Goodpasture syndrome is plasmapheresis combined with immunosuppressivemedications, namely prednisone and cyclophosphamide. Plasmapheresis removes anti-GBM antibodies and other mediators of inflammation (such as complement), while immunosuppressive agents minimize new antibody formation.
Rituximab
Rituximab induces B-cell apoptosis. It is administered intravenously to treat a variety of autoimmune disorders. While it is often utilized in the treatment of Goodpasture syndrome, it is co-administered with other immunosuppressive medications and plasmapheresis.
Question 7.
A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic because of pruritus and a burning sensation of her vagina. She says there is an associated white discharge with a foul smell. This has been occurring for one week duration. She is sexually active with her new boyfriend, and he reports of no symptoms. Pelvic examination reveals erythematous external genitalia. The cervix is non-tender with gray, thin, homogeneous discharge. Wet smear is performed, and reveals vaginal epithelial cells that have bacteria adherent to their surfaces. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
swelling, and dysuria. Diagnosis is made by identifying the bacteria through culture of the material from a swab or identification of genetic material from bacteria.
Chlamydia trachomatis
An infection with Chlamydia trachomatis often results in no symptoms, but can lead to some vaginal discharge or bring with urination. Diagnosis is made by nucleic acid amplification tests.
Candida albicans
Candida albicans is a causative organism of vaginal candidiasis, or yeast infection, which is commonly confused with bacterial vaginosis. It has similar clinical presentation of pruritus and increased vaginal discharge. However in candidiasis, vaginaldischarge is thick, and budding filaments and pseudohyphae can be seen on a wet mount.
Trichomonas vaginalis
Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan that causes a sexually transmitted disorder characterized by green-yellow malodorousdischarge and motile trichomonads visible on a wet smear.
Gardnerella vaginalis
Major takeaway
Bacterial vaginosis is a common cause of vaginosis caused typically by a bacterial overgrowthof Gardnerella vaginalis. It is treated with a course of metronidazole.
Main explanation
This patient’s clinical presentation is consistent with bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis, which is the most common cause of vaginosis and the most common infection encountered in the outpatient gynecological setting. An increase in vaginal discharge and“fishy” or “musty” odor are the most common clinical presentations of bacterial vaginosis. Although bacterial vaginosis is not considered to be a sexually transmitted disease, sexual activity has been linked to the development of this infection. Presence of clue cells on a saline smear is the most specific criterion for diagnosing bacterial vaginosis. Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells that have bacteria adherent to their surfaces.
Question 8.
A 57-year-old woman comes to the clinic because of malaise and intermittent episodes of “food sticking in my throat.” She believes she may have lost several pounds over the past month because of reduced oral intake to avoid the problem. Physical exam demonstrates flat-appearing fingernails and angular cheilitis. Barium swallow shows an upper esophageal web. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
AAA
Achalasia is characterized by dysphagia due to a failure of smooth muscle fibers to relax, which can cause the lower esophageal sphincter to fail to open appropriately. Iron-deficiency anemia and esophageal web are not features of this condition.
Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma
Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma can present with dysphagia – particularly progressive dysphagia to solids, odynophagia, unintentional weight loss, and dyspepsia, but is not associated with the characteristic triad of Plummer-Vinson Syndrome.
Plummer-Vinson Syndrome
Major takeaway
Plummer-Vinson syndrome, also known as Patterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome, is a rare disorder characterized by a clinical triad of dysphagia, iron-deficiency anemia, and an esophageal web.
Main explanation
Plummer-Vinson syndrome, also known as Patterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome, is now a rare disorder characterized by the clinical triad of dysphagia, iron-deficiency anemia, and upper, an anterior esophageal web. The typical patient presenting with Plummer-Vinson syndrome is a postmenopausal, white, middle-aged woman.
Symptoms of iron-deficiency anemia may be present including malaise, glossitis, angular cheilitis, and koilonychia. Dysphagia associated with Plummer-Vinson syndrome is usually painless and intermittent but may be associated with weight loss. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is treated with iron supplementation and mechanical esophagealdilatation as needed. PVS is considered to be a premalignant condition due to an association with an increased risk of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma. Close clinical surveillance is indicated.
Scleroderma
Scleroderma is a rare, chronic autoimmune disease characterized by dermal hardening. It can present with dysphagia, particularly the CREST variant (calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, esophageal dysfunction, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia). However, iron-deficiency anemia and esophageal webs are not characteristic of the disease.
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is associated with formation of lower oesophageal rings which may or may not be symptomatic.
Question 9.
A 23-year-old man comes to the clinic because of a 5-day history of nausea, vomiting, decreased appetite, and insomnia. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 102/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/72 mm Hg. Physical examination shows red eyes with no discharge. Complete blood count and liver function tests are normal. Tetrahydrocannabinol is found in his urine. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Alcohol use disorder
Alcohol use disorder involves problems that are encountered while controlling drinking. It is characterized by “binge-drinking”, depression, dizziness, vomiting, and insomnia. However chronic alcohol abuse usually shows changes in liver function tests and this patient has tetrahydrocannabinol which suggests the use of cannabis.
Cocaine dependence
Cocaine dependence is a psychological desire to use cocaine regularly. Cocaine is a powerful stimulant which creates euphoria and its withdrawal is characterized by dysphoria, depression, tachycardia, panic attacks, and cognitive impairments. However in this patient tetrahydrocannabinol is found in the urine which is a sign of cannabis use.
Amphetamine dependence
Amphetamine dependence refers to psychological dependence on amphetamines and it is characterized by depression, anxiety, weight loss, nausea, insomnia, and confusion. In this patient tetrahydrocannabinol is found in the urine which is a sign of cannabisuse instead of amphetamine use.
Cannabis dependence
Major takeaway
Cannabis dependence is a psychological desire to use cannabis because it provides a feeling of increased relaxation. Insomnia, red eyes, and decreased appetite are the main withdrawal symptoms. Psychotherapy is primarily used to treat cannabis use disorder.
Main explanation
Cannabis is one of the most widely used drugs in the United States as provides a feeling of increased relaxation (euphoria). At higher doses it can cause hallucinations and ataxia. Cannabis dependence or cannabis use disorder is the continued use of cannabis despite clinically significant impairment. Withdrawal symptoms include dysphoria, gastrointestinal symptoms, insomnia and decreased appetite. Dry, red eyes with no discharge is also a sign of cannabis use. This case is a classic presentation of cannabis dependencewhich is further supported by the presence of tetrahydrocannabinol in the patient’s urine sample. Tetrahydrocannabinol is the main psychoactive component of cannabis. Cannabis dependence is mainly treated with psychotherapy.
Nicotine dependence
Nicotine dependence develops over time with continued use of nicotine which results in heavy usage of cigarettes. Withdrawal symptoms include negative moods, difficulty in concentrating, tachycardia, nausea, and insomnia (in rare cases). However in this patient urine analysis shows presence of tetrahydrocannabinol which is consistent with cannabis use.
Question 10.
A 34-year-old woman comes to the clinic because of a three day history of right-sided facial droop. A review of system also shows a headache, blurry vision, cough, and dyspnea. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 80/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 136/72 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a rash on both legs that consists of tender erythematous nodules and plaques at the base of her neck. Right-side facial weaknesses is confirmed without any other neurological anomalies. Her eyes appear red and watery. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Bell's palsy
Bell’s palsy describes an isolated CN VII palsy characterized by facial droop, loss of lacrimation and diminished taste. While a possibility, it does not account for all her symptoms including her erythema nodosum, uveitis, and plaques.
Dermatomyositis
Dermatomyositis is a systemic inflammatory myopathy most commonly characterized by proximal muscle weakness. Skin findings are also common, and include Gottron’s papules and a heliotrope rash on the upper eyelids, unlike the erythema nodosum and plaques seen in this patient. Interstitial lung disease may also occur.
Sarcoidosis
Major takeaway
Sarcoidosis is a systemic granulomatous disorder that can involve any organ system. Neurosarcoidosis most commonly presents as cranial neuropathy due to chronic basal meningitis, with the facial and optic nerves characteristically affected.
Main explanation
Sarcoidosis is a systemic granulomatous disorder of unknown etiology. The non-caseating granulomas are characteristically found in the lungs, where they can cause cough and dyspnea, but any organ can be affected. A systemic disorder such as sarcoidosis should be considered whenever multiple organ systems are involved.
Neurosarcoidosis is the term used when the central or peripheral nervous systems are involved, and accounts for about 5-13% of cases. The most common presentation of neurosarcoidosis are cranial neuropathy and headache due to chronic basal meningitis (the facial and optic nerves are most commonly affected). This can manifest as facial droop which indicates involvement of CN VII. Other, less frequent neurological manifestations include ataxia, weakness, cognitive problems and seizure.
Definitive diagnosis of sarcoidosis requires positive histology of the affected tissue; the most common finding is non-caseating granuloma(s). Skin findings include macules and plaques. Erythema nodosum is also characteristic of the disease, but biopsy here is notably nonspecific. Uveitis is the most common sign associated with eye involvement and eye involve is present in 25-80% of cases.
Treatment is usually not required, but in cases of neurological involvement aggressive treatment with corticosteroids and immunosuppressants like azathioprine, may be required.
https://www.osmosis.org/learn/Sarcoidosis
Stroke
A stroke is always an important consideration when motor or sensory deficits are noted, especially in the head and neck. Strokepresentations vary depending on the location of the stroke, but it will not present with a rash and is generally more abrupt in onset.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder characterized by a malar facial rash, sensitivity to sunlight, endocarditis, polyarticular arthritis mostly of the small joints, myopathies, and other symptoms. It does not account for her facial nerve palsy.